Jesus is God because he said I am?

John 8:58, “before Abraham was, I am”…

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John 8:58

FACT: Jesus is the one who said this verse. He said “before Abraham was, I am”… And this was also a proof of others that jesus really existed before Abraham, means in the beginning.

QUESTION: Is this an evidence that Jesus have pre-existence? Or did Jesus Christ already exist in the beginning? According to the testimony of the apostles, what really existed in the beginning concerning Christ?

ANSWER: Well, let’s find out by reading the bible, let’s read acts 2:23 that says,

“This man, delivered up by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of god, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put him to death.”

Can anyone read that verse again? Okay?

FACT: It’s been testified that what existed in the beginning was the “foreknowledge of god” concerning Jesus Christ.

QUESTION: why did Jesus Christ say, “Before Abraham was I am”? Does this mean that he had pre-existence or that he had already existed even before Abraham was born?

ANSWER: Let’s read I pet. 1:20 that says,

“Foreknown indeed before the foundation of the world,

he has been manifested in the last times for your sakes.”

Even before the creation of the world, Christ was already foreknown by god. That testimony is clear that what existed even before is the plan or idea in gods mind to create him. And this idea concerning the creation of Christ did not remain only as a plan of god but was also promised by him, let’s read Rom. 1:2-3 that says,

“Which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy scriptures, concerning his son,

who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh.”

FACT: Christ did not exist before Abraham existed; rather, it was Abraham who existed before Christ, let’s look it up to Gal. 3:16 that says,

“Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He does not say, ‘And to seeds’,

as of many, but as one, ‘and to your seed’, who is Christ.”

Christ is the seed of Abraham, which is why it is wrong to assert that he existed before Abraham did. In other words, again, even before god created the world, he had already planned that there would be a messiah or Christ. But there was no Christ yet in existence in the beginning, contrary to what the proponents of the Christ-is-god doctrine would like us to believe, for he came to exists only when he was born of his mother like what was in gal. 4:4 that says,

“But when the fullness of the time had come, god sent forth his son,

born of a woman, born under the law”

Others believe that only god says “I am”, in other words, they believe that because jesus also said “I am” like what god said, it is automatically jesus is god, so, the equation is jesus=god.

QUESTION: But what would happen if we believe that who says “I am” in the whole content of the bible means it is god or refers to god?

ANSWER: We must remember that not only god who says “I am”, let’s read judges 13:11 that says,

"And Manoah arose, and went after his wife, and came to the man, and said unto him, Art thou the man that spakest unto the woman? And he said, I am."

And let’s read also john 9:9 that says,

"Some said, This is he: others said, He is like him: but he said, I AM he.”

So, let’s go again to the question, do only god says “I am”? Meaning if we believe that Jesus Christ is god only because he uttered the words “I am”, It means also that manoa in judges 13:11 and the blind man in john 9:9 would also be our god or gods.

exodus 3:14

QUESTION: if we believe that Jesus is the Jehovah who spoke in exodus 3:14 because jehovah uttered the statement “I AM” were true, we must accept that aside from having a Jesus who is Jehovah, there is another Jesus, who is the servant of Jehovah. Why?

ANSWER: going back to exodus, chapter 3, Jehovah or YHWH, in English word, lord, introduced himself as the god of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in verse 15.however, in the New Testament, the same god or Jehovah, was introduced by peter as the one who glorified Jesus, his servant. This testimony as it is written in Acts 3:13:

“The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, the god of our fathers, glorified his servant Jesus, whom you delivered up and denied in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let him go.”

FACT: If Jesus were the god who spoke to Moses in the burning bush, then who would be his servant by the name of Jesus in Acts 3:13? Are we prepared to accept that there are two jesuses, one who is god of Abraham and one who is called the servant of the god of Abraham? Is there such a thing in the Bible as “Jesus who is the servant of Jesus”???

Well, we already know the answer, it is none. The Jesus who is the servant of god is truly different from the god of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

QUESTION: so, does the “I AM” statement make Christ our god, the father? Well, THINK AGAIN…

Jesus is the true God?

I john 5:20

"And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life."

What does I john 5:20 mean? Is Jesus the one who is being referred to as"the true God and eternal life"?

“3. 5.20-21. Knowing the true God; avoiding idolatry. The Greek of 5:20 has only the true (one) and reads literally: ‘we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding’ so that we know the true (one) and we are in true (one)’, in his Son Jesus Christ. ‘The (one) is the true God and eternal life’. It is clear from this that ‘the true (one)’ is God throughout. Christ is his Son. In the final sentence this (one) most naturally refers still to God, not to Christ, as some have suggested.” Loader, William. The Johannine Epistles. London: Epworth Press, 1992.

Other bible translation says:

"We know that Jesus Christ the Son of God has come and has shown us the true God. And because of Jesus, we now belong to the true God who gives eternal life." Contemporary english version

It is God the FATHER, and not CHRIST is the TRUE GOD that is being referred in I john 5:20. It also agree to what our Lord Jesus Christ taught, that the FATHER is the ONLY ONE true God:

"And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God,

and Jesus Christ whom You have sent." John 17:3

II peter 1:1

"Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:"

What does again II Peter 1:1 mean? Does this verse mean that the God and our savior is Christ? 

Lets see:

“Next, in the words, of our God and [our] Saviour Jesus Christ, I would interpret, as in Titus ii, 13 [where see note] our God of the Father and [our] Saviour Jesus Christ of the Son. Here, there is the additional consideration in favour of this view, that the Teo are distinguished more plainly in the next verse.” The New Testament for English Readers, p. 1671

“… Peter did not claim that Jesus of Nazareth was God. He ‘was a man, commended to you by God by the miracles and portents and signs that God worked through him when he was among you’…” Armstrong, Karen. A history of God. Great Britain: Mandarin Paperbacks, 1994

I Timothy 3:16

"and, confessedly, great is the secret of piety -- God was manifested in flesh, declared righteous in spirit, seen by messengers, preached among nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory!"

How about I timothy 3:16? Is it God that was manifested in the flesh?

Lets see:

“By the pronoun He with which the hymn opens, is to be understood, Christ. The Greek reading which underlies the AV translation ‘GOD’ is almost certainly wrong…” Bruce, F.F., General edition: The International Bible Commentary. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Zondervan Publishing House, 1986.

“3:16 The earliest Greek texts have “He” rather than “GOD”. The six phrases which follow appear to be a quotation from an early Christian hymn…” Criswell, W.A., Ph.D., ed. The Criswell Study bible, Nashville: Thomas Nelson, Pubs., 1979

“… The best manuscripts read, ‘Who’, referring to Christ. He was justified by the way the Spirit worked in him.” The Westminister Study Edition of the holy Bible. Philadelphia: The westminister press, 1968

“The context makes it plain that Paul is referring to Christ when he says: He who was manifest in the flesh (ASV)… All the leading words occur elsewhere in Paul’s writings. Flesh. Paul frequently emphasizes the humanity of Christ by the use of his word (Rom. 1:3; 8:3; 9:5, Eph 5:15, Col. 1:22, Heb. 5:7; 10:20)…” Pfeiffer, Charles F. and Everette F. Harrison, eds. The Wycliffe Bible Commentary. Chicago: Moody Press, 1990

Most bible translations and versions in the said verse use "He" instead of "God":

Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: He appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world,
was taken up in glory. NIV

By common confession, great is the mystery of godliness: He who was revealed in the flesh, Was vindicated in the Spirit, Seen by angels, Proclaimed among the nations, Believed on in the world, Taken up in glory. NASB

Jesus is a mighty God?

John 10:34-35 God said, “you are gods”

“Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;” john 10:34-35

This pronouncement made by our lord Jesus Christ before the Pharisees who questioned his words is an illusion to some verses in the Old testament, Psalm 82:1 and 6 which reads:

“God stands in the congregation of the mighty; he judges among the gods. …I said, ‘you are gods’ and all of you are children of the most high.”

The word ‘gods’ in these verses was used metaphorically of those whom God had placed as judges in the nation of Ancient Israel. This is similar to what is written in Exodus 21:6,

“Then his master shall bring him to God [the judges as his agents]; he shall bring him to the door or doorpost and shall pierce his ear with an awl;
and he shall serve him for life.”

Another proof that those referred to as ‘gods’ in Psalms 82:1 and 6 are not of the same nature as the God almighty is that they were to die like “mere men”:

“How long will you defend the unjust and show partially to the wicked?...” “But you will die like mere men; you will fall like every other ruler.” Ps. 82:2, 7

Going back to John 10:34-35, our Lord Jesus Christ alluded to Psalms 82:1 and 6 in order to stress a point to the Pharisees who took offense at his statement that he is the son of God. In the succeeding verse, john 10:36, Christ was pointing out to his detractors that if they were to accept that those from whom God’s word came are called “gods”, then why should they accuse Christ of blaspheming when he introduced himself as the son of God:

“As for me, the father chose me and sent me into the world. How, then, can you say that I blaspheme because I said that I am the Son of God?”

But, even as they really are “so-called gods” as mentioned in the bible, this should not lead us to believe in and worship other gods aside from the only true God, the father, as stated by Apostle Paul:

“Your glorying is not good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump? Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us: Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.” I Cor. 8:5-6

The belief that there is more than one true god other than the father is erroneous and is biblically untenable. The lord Jesus Christ himself made it quite clear when he declared that the father is the only one true god:

“These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.” John 17:1,3

Isaiah 9:6 “Mighty God”

Isaiah 9:6 is a prophecy about the ”Son”, our Lord jesus Christ. However, as you will see later, Jesus Christ is not the mighty god referred to nor does this prophecy indicate his alleged divinity.

Isaiah 9:6 reads:

 “For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.”

Since Isaiah 9:6 was originally written in Hebrew, it would be of help to consult the Jewish Publication Society of America on how it renders the verse:

“For a child is born unto us, a son is given unto us; And the government is upon his shoulder; and his name is called Pele-joez-el-gibbor-abi-ad-sar-shalom.”
The holy scriptures according to the Masoretic text

The Hebrew name pele-joez-el-gibbor-abi-ad-sar-shalom is translated in the footnote as “Wonderful in counsel is God the mighty, the everlasting father, the ruler of peace”

It is evident here that this is not a series of names as interpreted by some but just one long name. More importantly, we could clearly notice here that the “God the mighty” or “Mighty god” referred to who is also “wonderful in counsel” is none other than “the everlasting father” Himself. Taking into consideration that jesus Christ is the “Son” of the father (Matt. 3:16-17), He therefore, is not the father himself, hence, Christ is not the mighty God.

Does it say anywhere else in the bible that the father is indeed “wonderful in counsel”? In the same book of Isaiah, these are stated:

“All this also comes from the Lord Almighty, wonderful in counsel and magnificent in wisdom.” Isa. 64:8

Clearly then, the “Mighty god”, who is referred to in the prophecy as also “wonderful in counsel”, is not the Son jesus Christ but the “everlasting father.”

Why then is that one long name, having as its part the term “Mighty God”, mentioned in the prophecy concerning Christ? It is because the “government” or “authority” that the child (Christ) would later hold came from no less than the Mighty god who is the father. Christ himself proved this when he said:

“Then Jesus came to them and said, "All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.” Matt. 28:18, 11:27

Therefore, although Christ is the fulfillment of this prophecy about the child, it does not mean that he is god. It is worthwhile to note that one’s state of being is not necessarily determined by the meaning attached to his personal name, much less by the meaning of the title of the government or authority he holds. 

Simon the apostle was named “Cephas” or “Peter” which means rock (John 1:42) and the apostles James and John, were named “Boanerges, that is, ‘Sons of thunder’” (Mark 3:17). However, it doesn’t mean that peter is himself a rock and that the other two are ‘sons of thunder’. Moreover, biblical name of persons such as Eliphelet (The god of deliverance and Elihu (whose God is he{Jehovah} and places like Elkosh {od of my bow} and El-bethel {the god of bethel}) Also contain descriptions about God, but no serious theologian so far claims that those persons and places are God.

Going back to Isaiah 9:6, is this how Jewish scholars understand this verse which is originally written in their language—that the name in this prophecy does not indicate Christ’s alleged divinity? In the Jewish study bible, explain that:

“The mighty god… ruler: This long sentence is the throne name of the royal child. Semitic names often consit of sentences that describe God; thus the name Isaiah in Hebrew means, ‘The lord saves’; Hezekiah, ‘The lord strnghtens’… These names do not describe that person who holds them but the god whom the parents worship. Similarly, the name… un this verse Isaiah 9:6 does not describe that child or attribute divinity to him, contrary to classical Christian readings of this messianic verse.

It is clear that Pele-el-gobbor-abi-ad-sar-shalom is the “name” or the “title” of the authority or government or, as jewish scholars put it, the “throne name” which “does not describe the child or attribute divinity to him” but, as another scholar also puts it, “descriptive of his {Christ} office” given by the father:

“This son is not have a name which will be for a sign, like names of Isaiah’s sons, but one which will be descriptive of his office.”
Isaiah 1-39, by John Mauchline

The Father, Christ and the holy ghosy are one?

John 5:7-8 “For there are three that bear record in heaven, the father, the word and the holy ghost: and these three are one.”

I John 5:7-8 of the King james version cannot be validly used as a basis for the alleged Trinitarian doctrine. The authenticity of I john 5:7-8 of the king james version has long been in question. The statement in the said verses—“…in heaven: the father, the word and the holy ghost, and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth.”—is what scholars commonly call the “JOHANNINE COMMA”. Scholars seriously question the authenticity of the comma because it is absent in all the ancient greek manuscripts of the new testament:

“The comma is absent in all the ancient greek manuscripts of the NT with the exception of four rather recent manuscripts that date from the 13^th to 16^th centuries. The comma is lacking in such Ancient Oriental versions as the Peshitta, Philoxenian, Coptic, Ethiopic, and Armenian…”

“The fathers of the east do not quote or refer to the johannine comma in their Christological controversies. The omission indicates that the comma was not part of the biblical context of their time. For they surely would have used it had it been in the text.” New Catholic Encyclopedia

Moreover, The use of Johannine Comma was apparently influenced by a preconceived belief in the trinity. Starting as a gloss or a commentary, the Johannine Comma eventually found its way into the text itself: “The development of the Comma can be followed in the ecclesiastical writers of the late 4tha and 5th centuries, especially in Spain and Africa. Apparently, it developed as a result of Trinitarian interpretation of the triad: spirit-water-blood found in I john 5:8b.

By way of a gloss on the sacred text it eventually found its way into the text itself”. The rendition of I john 5:7 in the King james version is clearly erroneous. Even the catholic church, a major proponent of the doctrine trinity, denied the authenticity of the verse. The Vatican said:

“In recent times, the doubts concerning its authenticity have grown and the Holy office, in 1927, declared that, after careful examination of the whole circumstances, its genuineness could be denied” Fundamentals of catholic dogma

God the Father called Christ "God"?

Hebrew 1:8 “Your throne, O god”

Various bible versions differ in their renditions of Hebrew 1:8. Notice the difference, let us quote the verse from two different versions of the bible:

“But of the Son he says, ‘THY THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER’…”  New American standard bible

“But of the son he says, ‘God is your throne forever and ever!’…” Godspeed translation

The New American Standard Bible’s rendition exemplifies those translations of Hebrews 1:8 in which it appears as though the Son were addressed “O God” by the father, whereas that of the Godspeed translation typifies those bible versions where it has no indication that the father called the son as God, but states instead that the throne of the Son is God. One bible version even combines the two different translations and renders Hebrews 1:8 this way:

“But of the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, is {Or [God is your throne]} forever and ever’…” New revised Standard version

One thing that explains the disparity in various Bible translations is the fact that the bible has been translated into several languages, that in the process, some alternations have been made resulting from, among others, the idiosyncrasy of languages, differences in shades of meaning and dissimilarity in interpretation by different translators as well as their theological bias. 

It cannot be denied that many bible versions are done by people or groups of people with their own beliefs that subjectively influenced their versions, thereby producing translations with tainted, if not twisted, meaning.

So how then, are we to know which particular translation of the bible to use, for example, in a particular verse? Apostle Paul states the guiding principle we should employ, thus:

“These things we also speak, not in words which man’s wisdom teaches but which the holy spirit teaches, comparing spiritual things with spiritual.” I Cor. 2:13

Because spiritual things should be compared with spiritual truths, there must be no contradiction among verses of the bible. As a rule therefore in determining which rendition of a particular verse expresses the truth, a verse should not be in opposition to any other verse of the bible because god, in whose will and guidance the bible was written, is not the author of confusion (I Cor. 14:33).

It is for this reason that the Church of Christ believes that any translation of Hebrews 1:8 that puts it in such a way that Christ is being acknowledge as god by the father is unquestionably erroneous because such rendition categorically contradicts the following statements of the father himself:

“Acknowledge that I alone am God and that there is no else like me.” Isa. 46:9

“… And you are my witnesses! Is there a God besides me? There is no rock; I know not any.”  Isa. 44:8

“…I am the only god. Besides me there is no other God; there never was and never will be.” Isa. 43:10

Lest people suppose that there is one god in heaven but there is another in earth, the bible further adds:

“Therefore know this day, and consider it in your heart, that the lord himself is God in heaven above and on the earth beneath; there is no other.” Deut. 4:39

But what does it mean that “God is [the son’s] throne”? The answer is found in Psalms 45:6, the very verse in the old testament that is quoted in Hebrews 1:8:

“Your throne is from god, for ever and ever, the scepter of your kingship a scepter of justice” New Jerusalem bible

Clearly then, that god is the throne of the son denotes that the son’s throne is FROM GOD. Is it also taught in the new testament that the throne or authority that the son holds comes from no other than the almighty God? Yes it is. In fact, Christ himself taught this when he declared:

“…’All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth’.” Matt. 28:18

“All things have been delivered to me by my father,…” Matt. 11:27

Contrary therefore to the belief of some authors, nowhere in the bible, not even in hebrews 1:8, does the father acknowledge the Son as “God”?. What the holy scriptures openly teach regarding the issue is that the son jesus Christ, who is mistaken by some to be god, is introduced in the same epistle to Hebrews as “man” (Heb. 7:24) and that he unmistakably acknowledged the father, not himself, as the “only true god” (John 17:1, 3)

Understanding Thomas' statement

John 20:28 “My lord and my god!”

One of the witnesses summoned by proponents of the Christ-is-god theology to prove their contention regarding the doctrine of the alleged deity of Christ is Thomas the apostle. 

He is the same apostle who has been dubbed “DOUBTING THOMAS” in theological and religious circles because he once maintained an adamant position not to readily believe the testimonies of those who had actually seen the risen Lord, unless the account could be visibly proven.

QUESTION: However, was thomas’ statement in john 20:28 a statement of faith of a believer or a statement of a person who was in state of disbelief and amazement when he addressed jesus as “My lord and my god?”

ANSWER:

The Underlying events

According to the narrative of John, when jesus rose from the dead on the first day of the week (Jn. 20:1), He was first seen by Mary Magdalene to whom he said, “… go to my brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my father and your father and to my god and your god’” (Jn. 20:17) Take note that jesus told mary Magdalene that his god is also the god of his “brethen”. 

And since Christ considers those who hear god’s words and follow them as his brothers and brethren (Lk. 8:21), Thomas, being one of his apostles, was among to whom this message was intended. The message is clear: The god of jesus is also the god of the disciples whom jesus considers to be his brethren. Mary Magdalene did go and tell the disciples what jesus had spoken to her (Jn. 20:18).

QUESTION: What was the reaction of the disciples when mary Magdalene told them about the news of jesus’ resurrection?

ANSWER: the gospel according to Mark narrates that when the disciples first heard that jesus was alive and had been seen by her, “they did not believe” (Mk. 16:11); the apostles thought that what the women said was nonsense (Lk. 24:9-11).

After this event, jesus appeared anew to two of the disciples (Mk. 16:12) who went to a village called Emmaus (Lk. 24:13). He walked with them and while they were on the road, they told him about the news that he was seen a vision of angels and reported that he was alive (Lk. 24:23).

QUESTION: What was Christ’s reaction to their words?

ANSWER: Christ called them “fools, and slow of heart to believe” (Lk. 24:25). With these statements, jesus was rebuking them because of the hardness of their heart. These two disciples returned to Jerusalem and told the eleven apostles that Christ had risen (Lk. 24:33-34). 

QUESTION: What was the reaction of apostles upon hearing them?

ANSWER: Mark recorded that they did not believe the report of these two disciples who were with jesus on the road to Emmaus (Mk. 16:13).

When the disciples were assembles, with the doors locked for the fear of the jews, Jesus came and told them to be at peace. Then he showed to them his hands and side (Jn. 20:1-20).

QUESTION: What was their reaction at this time?
 

ANSWER: The disciples were overjoyed when they saw the Lord (Jn. 20:20).

QUESTION: Who was absent when Christ first came?

ANSWER: John narrated that Thomas was not with them when jesus came (Jn. 20:24).

The other disciples told him that they had seen the Lord (Jn. 20:25). 

QUESTION: Did Thomas believe this report?

ANSWER: possessing an attitude similar to that previously held by the other disciples, he reacted with disbelief and skepticism. He told them “…Except I shall see his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe” (Jn. 20:25). 

By this statement, Thomas became identified with skepticism and disbelief. Mark reported that jesus later appeared to the eleven as they were eating (Mk. 16:14). Luke reported that when the two disciples found the eleven assembled together, they told that the Lord had risen (Lk. 24:33-34). John reported that this event happened eight days after Jesus initially and briefly appeared to the disciples (Jn. 20:26). The disciples were gathered again and Thomas was with them at this time (Jn. 20:26). Jesus summoned Thomas to reach out his finger, to look at his hands, and to reach out his hand to him (Jn. 20:27). 

QUESTION: What was the reaction of the disciples, including Thomas?

ANSWER: They were terrified and frightened and supposed that they had seen a spirit (Lk. 24:37).

QUESTION: What did Christ do when they mistook him for a spirit?

ANSWER: He showed them his hands and feet and told them that a spirit has no flesh and bones (Lk. 24:38-39). Notice that before he showed his hands and feet, What did Christ tell them? “Why are ye troubled? And why do thoughts arise in your hearts?”

(Lk. 24:38). By these statements, Christ was clearly upbraiding them.

Christ’s statement in Luke 24:39 is also tacitly teaching them that he is not God. Prior to this event, Christ had earlier instructed the disciples about the nature of God. He taught that god is a spirit (Jn.4:24). The apostles mistook him for a spirit which is tantamount to falsely thinking of Christ as having the same nature as god or being god himself. 

QUESTION: Is this only an assumption?

ANSWER: The very fact that Thomas stated to jesus , ”My Lord and My god!” serves as palpable evidence that they had indeed believed a mistaken identity of jesus. But, jesus immediately corrected their wrong conclusion concerning his nature. He emphasized to them that he is not a spirit (Lk. 24:39), which is equivalent to saying that he is not god in his state of being. Jesus statement in Luke 24:39 serves as his didactical teaching to anyone who would think of him as God. 

The clarification he made to those who thought of him as a spirit is a reminder to anyone who would mistakenly think of him as God. In the account given by Mark, it was reported that jesus upbraided or scolded his disciples for their unbelief and hardness of heart because he is one of the eleven (Lk. 24:33; Mk.16:14). At this juncture, Christ told him, “Be not faithless, but believing” (Jn. 20:27).

QUESTION: What are these words that Christ uttered to Thomas?

ANSWER: These are upbraiding words which he said to him and to the rest of the apostles as narrated by Luke (24:39).

A statement of amazement and disbelief

QUESTION: When Thomas answered and said to him, “My lord and my God!” was he at this point affirming his faith in the alleged deity of Jesus or was he in a state of unbelief?

ANSWER: Think of the situation before Jesus showed himself to them: the doors were shut when Jesus abruptly stood in their midst and summoned Thomas to come near to him. 

QUESTION: What was Thomas reaction?

ANSWER: A reaction of unbelief and amazement. 

QUESTION: Is this kind of reaction something that is strange or unusual? 

ANSWER: No. the fact is, Thomas was not the only one caught perplexed but also the rest of his companions. Luke reported that when Jesus appeared abruptly in their midst while the disciples were gathered together, they were terrified and frightened (Lk. 24:36-37). Even after Jesus showed his hands and his feet (Lk. 24:20), still they did not believe because of their joy and amazement (Lk. 24:41). 

It was at this time that Jesus upbraided them (Mk. 16:14). It is not surprising, therefore, for Thomas to react in such fashion similar to the other disciples. Being in a state of wonder and disbelief, he uttered statements that were contrary to the message taught to them by Jesus through Mary Magdalene. 

QUESTION: What did jesus tell Mary that Thomas and the rest of the disciples should believe concerning the question of who should be their God? 

ANSWER: Jesus taught Mary and the disciples that their God is his God (Jn. 20:17).

It must be remembered that during the preceding days before his death, Jesus taught his disciples the identity of the only true god whom they should believe. In his intercessory prayer to the father in heaven, He emphasized the absolute oneness of God by saying, “Father,… You, the only one true god” (Jn. 17:1,3). 

Obviously, Thomas failed to remember these words of his master. What he uttered in John 20:28 should not be regarded as a statement of faith nor should they be considered as a strong biblical foundation to assert Christ’s alleged deity. Thomas statement in John 20:28 should be rejected as basis in proving the alleged divinity of Christ. 

Remember that Thomas was not preaching at that moment. His statement was against the statement that was written about Christ, uttered by peter when he was preaching under the inspiration of the Holy spirit (Acts 2:1-4,22). If the proponents of the Christ is God theology were to summon Thomas as a witness to prove their point, their evidence is weak because the one they consider as their prime witness was at that time in a state of doubt.

A mistake rebuked

QUESTIONS: “Why did jesus Christ not rebuke Thomas if his statement was wrong?” They alleged that jesus accepted Thomas statement and even blessed later? What did jesus tell him after he proclaimed “My lord and my god!”? 

ANSWER: Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me?...” (Jn. 20:29) What do we see at this point? Jesus was rebuking him, not blessing him! On the other hand, who are blessed according to jesus? “…Blessed are those who have not seen and yet believe” (Jn. 20:29). 

Unfortunately, there are still those who insist on submitting the doubting apostle’s statement in John 20:28 as their alleged evidence in proving their thwarted belief on Christ’s state of being. The reason is simple. In the absence of explicit biblical evidences that could substantiate their claim, they have no other recourse but to give much credit to the testimony of a doubting person. In a way, there are many “doubting thomases” today, who in spite of the overwhelming biblical references that it is not jesus but the father alone who is the only true God.

 Still contend that jesus is god, using as basis erroneous statements such as that which was uttered by the Apostle Thomas in John 20:28. If these people would only accept the inspired testimonies of the Lord Jesus and the apostle paul that the father is the only true god, then they would not fall into the same serious mistake as what Thomas and the other disciples once committed. 

However, those who have done a thorough examination of the biblical narratives cited, after doing an exhausted study, would agree to the truth that: Thomas statement in John 20:28 is not a confession of faith but a statement made by a person who was in a state of amazement and disbelief.

 

In God's image

Gen. 1:26 “Then God said, Let Us make man in Our image….”

Philippians 2:6, “who, being in the form of god, thought it not robbery to be equal with god.”

Colossians 1:15 “he is the image of the invisible god”

We (humans) are created in God’s image as what stated in Gen. 1:26 but does it mean that we are created in the state of being same as God's? 

Just like Jesus Christ, the bible says “he is the image of the invisible God” (Col.1:15) does it mean that Jesus Christ is same as God because it is said that he is the “image” of God? 

And in Phil. 2:6 “…being in the form of God” does it mean that Christ is God? 

Well, let’s find it out.

  
Let’s read Eph. 4:23-24 that says,

“And that you be renewed in the spirit of your mind, and put on the new self, which in the likeness of God has been created in righteousness and holiness of the truth.”

We are created in God’s image in righteousness and holiness. And to support that we are created in righteousness and holiness, lets read Eccles. 7:29:

"Behold, I have found only this, that God made men upright, but they have sought out many devices."

But we failed to God’s standard for all have sinned.

Let’s read Rom. 3:23 that says,

“for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God”

Christ is also created in the image of God like us because he is also a human and a creation, it is not in the state of being that we are created but in RIGHTEOUSNESS AND HOLINESS.

But what is our difference to Christ? 

Lets read I pet. 2:21-22 that says,

“To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps."He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth."

The difference is that we are all have sinned but only Jesus Christ the only man who has committed no sin and who has lived up to God’s purpose of creating man in his image, that’s why it is said that Christ is in “…being in the form of god”(Phil. 2:6). 

It is not said that “Christ is god” but only in the “form of god” like what Apostle Peter testified in john 6:69 that says,

“we believe and know that you are the holy one of god”

Christ is holy because he was sanctified by God, it is written in John 10:36.

Note: “form” is a near synonym of “image”. 

Let us always remember that Christ is not equal with god, and to prove that, let us continue reading the verse in Philippians...

"Who, being in the form of god….. thought it not robbery to be equal with god.”